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標題: [Core] Locus Problem [打印本頁]

作者: 數痴夢王    時間: 2016-3-11 02:59 PM     標題: Locus Problem

Given two fixed points A and B. P is a variable point such that PAB=k:1.
Prove that the locus of P is a circle geometrially.
作者: chman0216    時間: 2016-3-11 04:00 PM

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作者: 數痴夢王    時間: 2016-3-14 07:36 AM

not the stuff i want
Thanks anyway
作者: 數痴夢王    時間: 2016-3-15 08:28 AM

Solved but need cosine law
作者: erectus    時間: 2016-3-16 12:21 AM

See attached.
作者: 數痴夢王    時間: 2016-3-16 07:22 AM

Do not think they are similar
as <POA = ,<POB
and <PAO less than <PBO
作者: erectus    時間: 2016-3-16 12:48 PM

I don't see why you made such a simple mistake.
作者: 數痴夢王    時間: 2016-3-17 07:44 AM

Sorry Proved
2 sides proportional and included angle
so PA/PB = r/(r-1) = k
作者: 數痴夢王    時間: 2016-3-17 08:46 AM

erectus
不過這個証明假設了個軌跡是圓形,不能証明沒有其他圓形符合條件。
作者: 數痴夢王    時間: 2016-3-17 11:26 AM

放棄用幾何的方法証肥了,改用了解析幾何做
設 P(x,y)  A(0,0) B(a,0)
PA=k PB
x^2+y^2=k^2[(x-a)^2+y^2]
(k^2-1)x^2+(k^2-1)y^2-2k^2ax+k^2a^2=0
x^2+y^2-2k^2a/(k^2-1)x+k^2a^2/(k^2-1)=0
Proved r^2 = k^4a^2/(k^2-1)^2-k^2a^2/(k^2-1) = k^2a^2/(k^2-1)^2 >0
so it is a real circle.
作者: erectus    時間: 2016-3-17 04:39 PM

No, it's already a proof. But with some details to be filled in.
In my diagram, it is assumed that k > 1.  (if 0 < k < 1, the circle will be around point A instead).
And it has also to be proved  when P is on the far end of the diameter, though it's quite easy.
This circle satisfies the locus of  point P. Can some point F lies inside or outside the circle still satisfies the condition?

Now AP:BP = k : 1.  Can FA be k(d-x) so that AF:BF= k : 1.? No, that should be FG which is parallel to AP.
So F cannot lie inside the circle.  It can be proved impossible outside the circle similarly. So the circle is the only locus.
作者: 數痴夢王    時間: 2016-3-21 07:47 AM

WHY FG is parallel to PA?
作者: erectus    時間: 2016-3-22 02:34 AM

I mean FG parallel to AP in the diagram equals k(d-x) in length and cannot be equal to FA.
作者: 數痴夢王    時間: 2016-3-22 09:18 AM

got it thanks
作者: erectus    時間: 2016-3-23 01:48 AM

you're welcome.

Here is another more definite proof:





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